Time Puzzle
Here's a paradox I've been thinking about for a very long time, but haven't yet been able to fully articulate. Hopefully this comes close:
We can speak of existence, or experience, with regard to three modes of time: past, present, and future. The past can only be inferred by the existence of the present, along with tools and capacities such as memory and other symbolic records. The future is also a posited existence. Of the three, only the present exists in a true sense; while we may delve into our memories for the past, or daydream about the future, it is only the present "now" that we can subjectively experience, and even scientific "objective" observations can only be made in (or from) the present.
Yet the present itself, continually ocurring as a moment, has no duration, for if it did it would admit itself to division, and the present would then entail a past and a future, for of any present moment that admitted duration one could speak of that portion of the present which "had happened," "is happening," and "is yet to happen." This is clearly self-contradictory. If the present is something other than that which has a past and a future, then the present moment cannot be said to have duration, but must exist as a point travelling from the past and continuously slipping over the horizon of the future.
Again, a point in time, by definition, cannot contain within it any duration. And as a point in time, and without duration, no series of points could ever be said to have duration, or exist sequentially to "add up" to any duration. Just as a point in space contains absolutely no space (absolutely no volume), a point in time cannot itself contain any duration, for if it did it would be divisible, and thus not a point in time but a measurable unit of time.
If time, then, were to exist in a linear fashion, how does a continuum of present "nows," an infinite series of points, add up to the processes we observe and experience? For even an infinite set of points can never be said to have duration, for a point in time, by definition, has a duration of zero. Again, if the present moment, as a point in time, had a non-zero duration, the present would contain a past and a future, which is absurd. But if the present moment does not contain any duration, and the present is the only point in time which truly exists, how does a series of present moments ever become the sum of past events?
Comments
As I understand the mathematics of infinity, it's not true that "For even an infinite set of points can never be said to have duration, for a point in time, by definition, has a duration of zero." I think an infinite collection of infinitely-small objects can have a collective size of any number in R+ (that is, zero, infinity, or anything in between), depending on how quickly the two infinitys grow relative to each other. Consider the limits as x->infinity of x^2/x, 2x/x, and x/x^2 (and ignore the obvious algebraic simplifications).
The point of all that was to say that time must therefore consist of an infinite number of infinitely-small points, but where the number of points is a "larger infinity" than the (inverse-)duration of the points. This would give us an actual aggregate duration from a set of infinitely-small points, allowing the passage of time. And since we can't distinguish between each of these infinitely-small points in time, they appear to be a coherent/continuous "flow", just like a video does to the human eye, even though it may only be 30 or 60 images/second.
eric - hurray! i love it. since i don't understand infinite mathematics, i have a few questions. (1) are these infinitely small time-points divisible? (2) where are they (that is, is there one giant time moment for the universe, or an infinite set of them for the infinite set of points in space? if the latter, do we admit different infinitesmly small durations for different points in space, or are they all the same infinitely small size?)
Dad - yes, although 100 attoseconds is the smallest duration measured so far, so maybe the yoctosecond is still theoretical?
http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/science/nature/3486160.stm
"Einstein showed that people travelling at different speeds, whilst agreeing on cause and effect, will measure different time separations between events and can even observe different chronological orderings between non-causally related events."
1. No, they're not. How do you divide something that's infinitely small? There's no such thing as more-infinitely small.
2. If we consider it as a timeline (and I'm not sure how this fits in with the time-space theories of physics), I would imagine it has an infinite set of infinitely small points along the line (just like a graph of y=x). And I don't think you can have different sizes of infinitely-small.
To address a potential next question/confusion: In my first comment, I mentioned that things can approach infinity at different rates. This is true. But I don't think that this affects the eventual "size" of the infinity reached - just how quickly you get there.
On the other hand, maybe moments in time aren't actually "infinitely-small", but rather "infinitesimal" - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinitesimal (See also http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinity)
As a third option, it's also possible that moments in time do have a true duration, and we just can't innately sense it (and haven't figure out how to measure it yet), just like our eyes cannot perceive changes faster than ~120 frames/sec (exact number unclear, but probably in the high 10s or low 100s of frames/sec). Maybe moments in time are really just a yoctosecond long.
I'm sure I didn't actually clarify anything here...
Dad - Maybe if we have a large enough network of quantum computers (an infinite one?), at some point they will creatively solve the mysteries of the universe for us to the point where they can communicate them to us in a simplified manner... We'll just have to hope they don't deceive us for their own purposes. Robots!